JUDICIAL EXAM MODEL PAPER 14 B

51.

The Schedule attached with the NDPS Act 1985 is in reference to

(a) Sec. 3 (ii)

(b) Sec. 2 (xiv)

(c) Sec. 2 (xxiii)

(_d) None of these

52.

As per Section 27 of Cr.P.C., a juvenile is taken as a person under the age of

(a) 14 years

(b) 16 years

(c) 18 years

(d) None of the above

53. The statements of the witnesses are recorded by a police officer during the

investigation under Section of the Cr.P.C.

(a) 161 Cr.P.C.

(b) 162 Cr.P.C.

(c) 164 Cr.P.C.

(d) 169 Cr.P.C.

Page 9 of 19

54,

The term of life imprisonment under Indian Penal Code, 1860 is

(a) 14 years

(b) 20 years

(c) whole of natural life

(d) 10 years

55.

The word 'injury' in section 44 of IPC denotes harm illegally caused to

(a) Body

(b) Property

(c) Mind and Reputation

(d) All the above

56.

Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the sapinda relationship extends in the

line of ascent to

(a) two degrees through the mother and three degrees through the father

(b) three degrees through the mother and four degrees through the father

(c) three degrees through the mother and five degrees through the father

(d) five degrees through the mother and seven degrees through the father

Wagering Agreements are

(a) Valid

(b) Void

(c) Voidable

(d) Both (a) and (c)

58.

What is the maximum strength of the Judges of Supreme Court (including

Chief Justice of India)

(a) 25

(b) 26

(c) 30

(d) None of the above

59.

Where the defendant is confined in a prison, the summons shall be delivered

or sent to

(a) the person concerned

(b) the family of the person

(c) the officer in charge of the prison for service on defendant

(d) the advocate of the person

60.

Which Law Commission Report has proposed to amend Section 15 of the

Hindu Succession Act, 1956 in case a female dies intestate leaving her self

acquired property with no heirs

(a) 205th Law Commission Report

(b) 206th Law Commission Report

(c) 207th Law Commission Report

(d) 208th Law Commission Report

57.

A Page 10 of 19

61.

Which of the following relation is one of the four relations which has been

elevated to class I heirs category, by the Amendment Act of 2005

(a) Son's daughter's son

(b) Daughter's Daughter's son

(c) Daugther's son's son

(d) None of the above

Which statement is correct for presumption of culpable mental state under

sections 35 of NDPS Act

(a) Court shall presume culpable mental state as defense for the accused to

prove the fact that he had no such mental state with respect to the act

charged of an offence in that prosecution.

(b) Culpable mental state includes intention, motive, knowledge of a fact and

belief in or reason to believe a fact.

(c) Both a 86 b

(d) None of the above

62.

63. The famous Chinese pilgrim Fa-hien visited India during

(a) Chandragupta I

(b) Chandragupta-II

(c) Ramagupta

(d) Srigupta

64. The greatness of Shivaji was that he

(a) was the father of the Maratha nation

(b) defeated the Mughal forces

(c) was a benevolent ruler

(d) checked the Mughal expansion in the south

65. Who has been referred to as the conscience-keeper' of Gandhiji?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Rabindranath Tagore

(c) V. Patel

(d) G.K. Gokhale

66. M.A. Jinah and a section of the Muslim league was willing to give up separate

electorate in favour of a joint electorate (with certain conditions) at the time of

(a) Cabinet Mission

(b) Simon Commission

(c) Wavell Plan

(d) None of the above

67. Which of the following Acts formally introduced the principle of elections for

the first time

(a) The Indian Council Act, 1909

(b) Government of India Act, 1919

(c) The Government of India Act 1935

(d) India Independence Act, 1947

Page 11 of 19

68. Which region is most famous for citrus fruits?

(a) deserts

(b) monsoon regions

(c) temperate grasslands

(d) Mediterranean regions

69. Which countries are separated by Durand Line

(a) India and Pakistan

(b) India and Afghanistan

(c) India and China

(d) China and Russia

70. What is Chandipur Sea is known for?

(a) deep see fishing

(b) oil drilling

(c) missile testing range

(d) overseas communications

71. The idea of Constituent Assembly to frame a Constitution for India was first

mooted by

(a) M.N. Roy in 1927

(b) the Indian National Congress in 1936

(c) the Muslim League in 1942

(d) the All-Parties Conference in 1946

72. At which one of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi first start his

Satyagraha in India

(a) Ahmedabad

(b) Bardoli

(c) Champaran

(d) Kheda

73.

fundamental duty?

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a

(a) To vote in public elections

(b) To develop the scientific temper

(c) To safeguard public property

(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its

ideals.

74. Which one of the following writs literally means 'what is your authority'?

(a) Habeas Corpus

(b) Certiorari

(c) Quo Warranto

(d) Prohibition

A Page 12 of 19

75. Honour killing relates to the following

(a) Domestic violence

(b) Physical assault

(c) Condemning couples for marrying outside their caste and making them

embrace death

(d) prevalent in north-eastern Indian states

76. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed among the special powersof

the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Resolution for the removal of the Vice-President of India can be initiated

only in the Rajya Sabha

(b) Resolution for creation of new All India Services can be initiated in the

Rajya Sabha only

(c) Laws on any subject of State list can originate only in the Rajya Sabha if

it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in national interest

(d) None of the above

77. Which one of the following was elected President of India unopposed?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(b) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(c) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(d) Dr. K.R. Narayanan

78. Consider the following statements:

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on

matters of law or fact

1. on its own initiative (or any matter of larger public interest)

2. if he seeks such an advice

3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. The system of Public Interest Litigation has been introduced in India

(a) through Constitutional Amendments

(b) by judicial initiative

(c) by political parties

(d) by a Parliamentary Act

Page 13 of 19

80.

classes

Under one of the following judgments the Supreme Court directed the

Government to constitute a permanent body in favour of the backward

(a) Minerva Mills v. Union of India

(b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

(c) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

(d) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India

81. Synagougue is the place of worship of

(a) Judaism

(b) Shintoism

(c) Zoroastrianism

(d) Taoism

82. What is the total number of High Courts in India presently

(a) 28

(b) 26

(c) 24

(d) 21

83. Under-20 Football World Cup 2011 was won by

(a) Brazil

(b) Portugal

(c) Spain

(d) Italy

84.

Which part of the judgment establishes the precedent that is to be followed by

the lower courts?

(a) Ratio-decidendi

(b) Obiter Dicta

(c) The facts that are identified as binding by the judge

(d) The section of the judgment entitled 'Precedent'

85.

'Ejusdem generis' means

(a) of the same kind, class or nature

(b) express mention of one thing excludes all others

(c) upon the same matter or subject

(d) all of the above

86.

Which of the following is a part of the 'context' for interpreting a statute

(a) Headings

(b) Side-notes

(c) Punctuation

(d) All of the above

A Page 14 of 19

87.

_

'Legislative debate' is a part of

(a) Internal-aids to interpretation

(b) External-aids to interpretation

(c) both internal and external aids to interpretation

(d) none of the above

88.

Penal Statutes have

(a) Retrospective operation

(b) Prospective Operation

(c) Discretion of the Court

(d) All of the above

89.

Rule of purposive construction is also known as

(a) Literal Rule

(b) Golden Rule

(c) Harmonious Rule

(di Mischief Rule

90.

Legal Maxim 'construction ex visceribus actus' means

(a) statute should be read as a whole

(b) when two meanings are possible, court may choose any

(c) court should act according to the popular view

(d) None of the above

91.

The Act comes into the force on the day

(a) It receives the assent of the President or Governor as the case may be

(b) It receives the consent of the President or Governor as the case may be

(c) It is passed by the lower house

(d) It is passed by both the houses after due deliberation

92.

The words not defined in the Specific Relief Act shall be understood according

to

(a) The Indian Contract Act

(b) The Indian Succession Act

(c) Transfer of Property Act

(d) None of the above

93.

Specific Relief Act is the product of

(a) 8th Report of Law Commission of India on SRA of 1877

(b) 9th Report of Law Commission of India on SRA of 1877

(c) 10th Report of Law Commission of India on SRA of 1877

(d) None of the above

A Page 15 of 19

94.

Burden to prove adverse possession is on

(a) Court

(b) Plaintiff

(c) Defendant

(d) None of the above

95.

Section 13 of the Specific Relief Act has no application when the transfer has

been effected in respect of a property

(a) in which vendor has no title or has an imperfect title

(b) in which vendor has title

(c) in which vendor has imperfect title

(d) none of the above

96.

Mistake contemplated under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act is

(a) Mutual mistake

(b) Mistake in framing of the instrument

(c) bilateral mistake

(d) all of the above

97.

Proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act relates to

(a) suits for injunctions

(b) suits for declaration

(c) suits for specific performance

(d) all of the above

98.

Within the meaning of Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, the assignee falls

(a) within the meaning of representative in interest or principal

(b) representative of interest only

(c) representative of principal only

(d) none of above

99.

What is true of temporary injunction

(a) is permanent between the parties

(b) concludes the right

(c) continues until a certain specific period

(d) can't be granted ex-parte

100.

In cases of specific performance of a contract, the rights of the parties are

governed by the principles of

(a) law

(b) equity

(c) equity and law

(d) neither equity and nor law

A Page 16 .of 19

101. Period of limitation for application for substitution of the legal representatives

of a party to the suit is

(a) 10 days

(b) 30 days

(c) 60 days

(d) 90 days

102.

The maximum period of limitation prescribed in the Limitation Act is

(a) 12 years

(b) 3 years

(c) 30 years

(d) 35 years

103.

Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable to

(a) Only Civil Proceedings

(b) Only Criminal Proceedings

(c) Only to Civil Proceedings and Election Petitions

_(d) Only to Civil Proceedings and some special Criminal Proceedings

104.

Period of Limitation means

(a) period of limitation prescribed for any suit, appeal or applicable by the

schedule

(b) period of limitation computed according to the provisions of this Act

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above -

105.

The limitation period expired on 1.1.2012. But court had holidays from 30

December 2011 - 5 January 2012. Limitation would expire on

(a) 29 December 2011

(b) 6 January 2012

(c) 1 January 2012

(d) Discretion of the court

106.

A right to sue accrued to X on 1.1.2000 when he was a minor aged 15 years.

The period of limitation of 2 years expires on

(a) 1.1.2002

(b) 1.1.2003

(c) 1.1.2005

(d) None of the above

107. Limitation for filing an appeal commences from _

(a) The date of the judgment

(b) The date of signing of the decree

(c) The date of application for the copy of the judgment

(d) The date of availability of copy of the judgment

Page 17 of 19

108.

The period of limitation as given in the schedule

(a) can be extended by the courts

(b) can be extended by the parties to the contract

(c) can be restricted and extended by the parties

(d) can neither be extended nor restricted

109.

Relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction forms a part of

Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

110.

Communication by a client to an Advocate is not permitted to be disclosed

under Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(a) 126

(b) 127

(c) 128

(d) 129

One of the question whether a crime was committed by A on a certain day at

Chandigarh the fact that on that day he was at Calcutta is relevant because

(a) This reflects the conduct of the accused

(b) Relevant as Preparation

(c) Inconsistent to Facts in Issue

(d) Relevant as Motive

112.

'Admission' is a statement which is

(a) oral, written, spoken

(b) oral and documentary

(c) oral, documentary or contained in electronic form

(d) none of the above

Rule of estoppel is contained in Section of the Evidence Act, 1872

(a) 112

(b) 115

(c) 118

(d) 120

113.

114.

Section 113B of the Evidence Act contains provision regarding

(a) Resumption as to Dowry Death

(b) Presumption as to intention to cause death

(c) Presumption as to cause of death

(d) Presumption as to motive of cause death

A Page 18 of 19

115. Section 134 of the Evidence Act provides a set number of witnesses in a case

as a requirement of proof

(a) None

(b) One

(c) Minimum Two

(d) Two Alone

116. According to Transfer of Property Act, the immovable property does not

include

(a) grass

(b) standing timber

(c) growing crops and grass

(d) standing timber, growing crops and grass

117. Which is not the immoveable property as per the Transfer of Property Act

(a) Growing crops

(b) A right of way

(c) A lease of land

(d) A life interest in the income of immovable property

118.

A right to sue for damages is

(a) An actionable claim

(b) Not an actionable claim

(c) Not only a mere right to sue

(d) Transferable.

119.

In a transfer of a house, the transferor will get

(a) Easementary rights

(b) Locks, keys, doors, etc.

(c) Rent due after the transfer

(d) All of the above

120.

Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act deals with

(a) Rule against perpetuity

(b) Lis pendens

(c) Doctrine of apportionment

(d) Doctrine of part-performance

121.

is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or

promised or part paid and part promised

(A) Sale

(B) Mortgage

(C) Pledge

(D) Exchange

A Page 19 of 19

Which of the following is an immovable property within the meaning of

Section 2(6) of the Registration Act, 1908

(a) Standing timber

(b) Growing Crops

(c) Grass

(d) None of the above

123.

Which of the following statement is true with regard to Section 123 of the

Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(a) It provides an exception to Section 17(1)(a) of the Registration Act

(b) It is supplemental to Section 17(1)(a) of the Registration Act

(c) It provides an exception to Section 17(1)(b) of the Registration Act

(d) It is supplemental to Section 17(1)(b) of the Registration Act

124.

Which of the following is compulsorily registrable

(a) Gift in lieu of dower

(b) Hiba-bil-iwaz

(c) Both (a) & (b)

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

125.

In which case the Supreme Court held that where the parties set-up

competing titles and the differences are resolved by a compromise, there is no

question of one deriving title from the other and so the document is not

compulsorily registrable

(a) Roshan Singh v. Zile Singh

(b) Ghulam Ahmad v. Ghulam Qadir

(c) Bakhtawar Singh v. Gurdev Singh

(d) S.V. Chandra Pandian v. S.V. Sivalinga Nadar

ANSWERS FOR HARYANA ADJ -2012

1 A

2 A

3 B

4 B

5 D

6 B

7 C

8 A

D

10

11 C

12 D

13 A

14 B

15 A

16 A

17 D

18

19 B

20 A

21 A

22 B

23 Deleted

24 D

25 C

26 A

27 C

28

29 A

30 C

31 C

32 B

33 B

34 D

35 C

36 C

37 A

38 A

39 A

40

41 D

42 A

43 C

44 D

45 C

46 B

47 D

48 B

49 B

50 B

51 C

52 B

53 A

54 C

55 D

56 C

57 B

58

59 C

60 C

61 D

62 C

63 B

64

65 A

66 B

67 A

68 D

69 B

70 C

71 A

72 C

73 A

74 C

75 C

76

77 C

78 B

79 B

80

81 A

82 D

83 A

84 A

85 A

86 D

87 B

88 B

89 C

90 A

91 A

92 A

93 B

94 C

95 B

96 D

97 B

98 A

99 C

100 C

101 D

102 C

103 A

104 A

105 B

106 C

107 A

108 D

109 C

110 A

111 C /

112 C

113 B

114 A

115 A

116 D

117 A

118 B

119 D

120 B

121 A

122 D

123 B

124 C

125 A